Joint pain improvement vs new joint pain — a paradox on GLP-1

Adding the clinical framing, because it changes how the question reads. The useful move here is to separate what is established from what is widely repeated. Those two sets overlap less than the confident tone of most write-ups suggests, and the second set is where nearly all the disagreement on this board comes from.

If somebody has the primary source to hand I would rather cite it than paraphrase it.

Adding the numbers, since they settle part of this. If you are going to change something, change one thing and give it long enough to express itself. Four weeks is the usual minimum for anything pharmacological on this board, and two weeks of data has told you almost nothing.

A narrower follow-up, since the general answer is now clear:

Was that from a primary source or from a summary of one?

lucas_SP_BR said:

If you are going to change something, change one thing and give it long enough to express itself.

Careful with the causal language. Two things moving together in a period when five things changed is not a mechanism, and stating it as one makes the thread less useful to somebody reading it later.

Correct me if the detail matters more than I have assumed.

Moderator note: the sourcing question belongs in the vendor section and has been split out.